Before I get into this verse deeply and its surrounding context, please tell me what you believe about this statement by the Lord Jesus Christ.
And let me insert these links:
1. I need someone to unpack for me what is written here by “Dear Elder“:
Mormon beliefs included the belief that when Christ says, “The Father and I are one,”4 Christ did not mean that He and the Father are of one substance. Mormons believe that Christ meant that He and the Father are united in heart, purpose, and thought.
2. “Mormon Cult” claims that evangelicals would use John 10:30 in this fashion:
True Christians know that God and Christ are one (John 10:30), namely one spiritual, indivisible Being of one substance without a visible body and certainly without a “right hand.” And no man can see God (John 6:46), so the Mormon scripture is clearly false.
Is that true? Is the “Mormon Cult” man thorough in his analysis of evangelical exegesis?
3. Mark gets into it.
4. James gets into it a little deeper.
5. The “4witness” website explores John 10:30 and then Ps. 82, but I don’t quite follow their exegesis on the psalm chapter:
6. Whoa, and several months ago, Seth really jumps into an explanation at Rob’s post on this very topic.
7. And how about one more . . . Matt follows with some favorite LDS leanings in John 17.