This year, I am reading through the Joseph Smith Translation alongside my personal Bible reading.
Let me start from the beginning on Smith’s alterations that stand out starkly in my mind.
A Revelation Given to Joseph the Seer (June A.D. 1830)
v. 2 – “And God spake unto Moses, saying, Behold, I am the Lord God Almighty, and Endless is my name, for I am without beginning of days or end of years; and is not this endless?”
What does endless mean? (Btw, Dart, Blake’s first two books are in the mail.)
v. 4 – . . . “but there is no God beside me.”
I recognize this from Isaiah. Does this mean that the Father does not recognize the Son as a God like him?
v. 8 – . . . “For, behold, I could not look upon God except his glory should come upon me, and I were transfigured before him.”
In his natural state, Moses can look at Satan? But only in his spiritual state, Moses can look upon the Father?
v. 13 – . . . “Depart hence, Satan; for this one God only will I worship, which is the God of glory.”
Does this mean that Moses does not equally worship the Only Begotten?
v. 23 – . . . “to bring to pass the immortality and eternal life of man.”
Is immortality, resurrection from the grave? And eternal life, celestial glory?
v. 24 – . . . “And in a day when the children of men shall esteem my words as naught, and take many of them from the book which you shall write, behold, I will raise up another like unto you, and they shall be had again among the children of men, among even as many as shall believe.”
Is this predicting Joseph Smith, a prophet like Moses? Was Moses a restorer of God’s words in the midst of apostasy?